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Against Relativism

Relativism is the idea that there can be two incommensurable realities, each equally valid. So we have two simultaneous assertions: something is real, and it is real relative to me, and these assertions contradict each other. The underlying thought is this: to be finite is to be limited by another, and the other is the infinite. To be finite, then, is to be the negation of the infinite. Finitude, then, is to be understood only in reference to the infinite. If you sever this connection, then the finite in itself becomes the infinite. It comes to be considered as both finite and infinite at the same time. This is relativism. A finite perspective on reality is treated as both reality as such and as finite. If it were not finite, then an equally valid alternative reality would not be possible. But we have a reality which is valid-for-another. This shows the finitude of my own perspective because I am urging my perspective to be treated as absolute while at the same time I am limited by wha...
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Being And Nothing

If nothing exists, then there is being, and if nothing does not exist, then by the law of double negation, something exists. This is the Parmenidean problem: what-is-not cannot be thought or spoken of because we can only think and speak of what is. So there is no absolute nothingness because the category contradicts itself. Parmenides used this insight to argue against the reality of motion. Advaita Vedanta believes that pure being has no opposite; it knows no non-being. But the world is negatable; hence, it cannot be pure being. It still appears as an object of consciousness, and so it is different from non-being. Being and Non-Being then are contraries whose negation can be found in one substratum. Dvaita Vedanta firmly advocated against this that Being and Non-Being are contradictories — the negation of Being is Non-Being, and the negation of Non-Being is Being. In this case, then the negation of Being is Absolute Non-Being, and they believe we can talk about what-is-not without mak...

Has Kant Answered Hume

The reason Kant made a distinction between two sources of knowledge — understanding and intuition was because we are finite beings who do not have an intellectual intuition. So, simply from our concepts we cannot draw any conclusions about existence (as we do in the Ontological Argument) without the aid of sensible intuition. The issue here is that this seems to saddle us with a new kind of dualism — of concepts and reality. Kant admits that these two apparently distinct sources of knowledge could have an identical root, but this root remains incomprehensible for us. So we have to accept this duality from our finite perspective. The Jewish philosopher Solomon Maimon argued that this duality is fatal to the prospects of Kant answering Hume. In principle, Hume would have no problem in conceding that there are a priori concepts of understanding that determine the possibility of experience by organising the sensible matter of cognition. The issue is that this matter itself does not have a ...

Can something be objectively meaningful if meaning itself only exists inside human minds?

Is it possible, simply through the study of psychology and without knowledge of mathematics, to tell that 2+2=5 is wrong? Simply through the survey of the internal contents of the mind, can you make any judgement about what is true or false? You cannot tell whether affirming the consequent and denying the antecedent are fallacious forms of reasoning or not. For that, psychology has to turn to other sciences, and so it must necessarily presuppose others. Or take Transcendental Phenomenology, which is the study of phenomena - the subject matter of this science. To arrive at this phenomena we have to abstract from real existence and concentrate on how things appear to consciousness. This epoche, as Husserl calls it, drives a wedge between meaning and reality, but this separation is presupposed within the science and not justified within it. The phenomenological reduction is, as a consequence selective; it knows what it negates and what it preserves. There is already a duality of meaning a...

If reality is only what our brain perceives, how can we prove anything is truly real?

  Reality cannot be only what our brain perceives because the finitude of all our claims demonstrates the opposite. Is ‘true for me’ true? If it were, it would not conflict with another truth claim. If it is said there is no conflict because ‘true for me’ is true, then there is conflict. If I say ‘this is sweet’ is true for me, and ‘this is sour’ is true for another, and there is no conflict between the two claims, it should be asked whether true for me means the same as true or not. If it doesn’t, then that implies true-for-me and truth are not identical; if it does, then there are two contradictory truth claims, and that means ‘true-for-me’ and truth are not identical. What is real is also objective - applicable across subjective perspectives. If I run into a thief who believes it is right to murder me for money, and if I think I should not die, but if I also believe that he is right from his perspective to think so, then I am going to die. Can I, however, think that I am right t...

Is Atheism A Logical Position And Theism An Emotional Position?

  I disagree. Theism or any form of belief in God is based on the idea that the world and finite human beings lack genuine existence, and their existence in a relevant sense about which they may differ is derived from a higher source, which is the ground of all existence. This ground of all existence is God, and its existence is self-explanatory. Atheism denies this because the search for grounds leads us to an infinite regress, because there is nothing whose existence is self-explanatory, so everything that is, is conditioned by something else, and that by something else and so forth. This comes down to - anything that is finite is through another finite entity and does not require the other of finitude, the infinite to explain the finite. Whichever position is correct, there is no reason to think that one is logical and the other is purely emotional. Even Kant, who criticized proofs of God, conceded that Reason, due to its intrinsic nature, cannot relinquish the search for the ul...

Why does the First Cause for the existence of the Universe has to be a spiritual entity? Why can't it be material in nature?

  The consideration that led us to seek a first cause also lead to the consideration that the first cause is immaterial. Consider the properties of matter: Composition: matter is something composed of parts, and every part is external to the other parts. Matter is parts outside parts. The first cause must be simple or incomposite; otherwise, we would have to seek the cause of the unity of the first cause, in which case it would not be ‘first’. Potentiality-Actuality: This is a consideration from the Aristotelian framework. Matter is something indeterminate and is something determinate (capable of being referred to as a this-x) because of the presence of a Form. For Aristotle, the first cause must be something actual, or it would not be the first cause of motion. The idea is that if everything were merely in potency to another, then there would be no motion. If the First Cause were in potency in relation to another, it would require another cause to explain its motion. Space-Time: A...